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CompTIA PT0-003 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Vulnerability Discovery and Analysis: In this section, cybersecurity analysts will learn various techniques to discover vulnerabilities. Analysts will also analyze data from reconnaissance, scanning, and enumeration phases to identify threats. Additionally, it covers physical security concepts, enabling analysts to understand security gaps beyond just the digital landscape.
Topic 2	Engagement Management: In this topic, cybersecurity analysts learn about pre-engagement activities, collaboration, and communication in a penetration testing environment. The topic covers testing frameworks, methodologies, and penetration test reports. It also explains how to analyze findings and recommend remediation effectively within reports, crucial for real-world testing scenarios.
Topic 3	Post-exploitation and Lateral Movement: Cybersecurity analysts will gain skills in establishing and maintaining persistence within a system. This topic also covers lateral movement within an environment and introduces concepts of staging and exfiltration. Lastly, it highlights cleanup and restoration activities, ensuring analysts understand the post-exploitation phase’s responsibilities.
Topic 4	Attacks and Exploits: This extensive topic trains cybersecurity analysts to analyze data and prioritize attacks. Analysts will learn how to conduct network, authentication, host-based, web application, cloud, wireless, and social engineering attacks using appropriate tools. Understanding specialized systems and automating attacks with scripting will also be emphasized.
Topic 5	Reconnaissance and Enumeration: This topic focuses on applying information gathering and enumeration techniques. Cybersecurity analysts will learn how to modify scripts for reconnaissance and enumeration purposes. They will also understand which tools to use for these stages, essential for gathering crucial information before performing deeper penetration tests.

CompTIA PenTest+ Exam Sample Questions (Q210-Q215):

NEW QUESTION # 210
A tester obtains access to an endpoint subnet and wants to move laterally in the network. Given the following Nmap scan output:
Nmap scan report for some_host
Host is up (0.01s latency).
PORT STATE SERVICE
445/tcp open microsoft-ds
Host script results:
smb2-security-mode: Message signing disabled
Which of the following command and attack methods is the most appropriate for reducing the chances of being detected?

A. responder -I eth0 -dwv ntlmrelayx.py -smb2support -tf <target>
B. msf > use exploit/windows/smb/ms17_010_psexec
C. nmap --script smb-brute.nse -p 445 <target>
D. hydra -L administrator -P /path/to/passwdlist smb://<target>

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Nmap scan output indicates SMB (port 445) is open, and message signing is disabled. This makes the system vulnerable to NTLM relay attacks.
* Option A (responder -I eth0 -dwv ntlmrelayx.py -smb2support -tf <target>) #: Correct.
* Responder poisons LLMNR and NBT-NS requests, capturing NTLM hashes.
* NTLMRelayX then relays captured hashes to an SMB service without message signing, allowing unauthorized access.
* This attack is stealthier than brute-force methods.
* Option B (ms17_010_psexec) #: This exploits EternalBlue, but we don't have confirmation that this system is vulnerable to MS17-010.
* Option C (hydra brute-force) #: SMB brute-force is noisy and will likely trigger alerts.
* Option D (smb-brute.nse) #: This brute-force attack is also loud and detectable.
# Reference: CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-003 Official Guide - NTLM Relay & SMB Exploitation

NEW QUESTION # 211
During enumeration, a red team discovered that an external web server was frequented by employees. After compromising the server, which of the following attacks would best support ------------company systems?

A. A watering-hole attack
B. A command injection attack
C. Aside-channel attack
D. A cross-site scripting attack

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best attack that would support compromising company systems after compromising an external web server frequented by employees is a watering-hole attack, which is an attack that involves compromising a website that is visited by a specific group of users, such as employees of a target company, and injecting malicious code or content into the website that can infect or exploit the users' devices when they visit the website. A watering-hole attack can allow an attacker to compromise company systems by targeting their employees who frequent the external web server, and taking advantage of their trust or habit of visiting the website. A watering-hole attack can be performed by using tools such as BeEF, which is a tool that can hook web browsers and execute commands on them2. The other options are not likely attacks that would support compromising company systems after compromising an external web server frequented by employees. A side-channel attack is an attack that involves exploiting physical characteristics or implementation flaws of a system or device, such as power consumption, electromagnetic radiation, timing, or sound, to extract sensitive information or bypass security mechanisms. A command injection attack is an attack that exploits a vulnerability in a system or application that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on the underlying OS or shell. A cross-site scripting attack is an attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application that allows an attacker to inject malicious scripts into web pages that are viewed by other users.

NEW QUESTION # 212
A penetration tester gains shell access to a Windows host. The tester needs to permanently turn off protections in order to install additional payload. Which of the following commands is most appropriate?

A. sc config <svc_name> start=disabled
B. sc query state= all
C. net config <svc_name>
D. pskill <pid_svc_name>

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Command Explanation:
* The sc config command is used to configure service startup settings in Windows. Using start=disabled will permanently disable a specific service, effectively turning off protections such as antivirus or other monitoring services.
* Why Not Other Options?
* B (sc query state= all): This command lists all services and their states but does not disable or modify any service.
* C (pskill): This command is used to terminate a process temporarily, but it does not permanently disable the service.
* D (net config): This command is used for configuring network settings, not for managing services.
CompTIA Pentest+ References:
* Domain 3.0 (Attacks and Exploits)
* Windows Service Exploitation Guidelines

NEW QUESTION # 213
A penetration tester runs a vulnerability scan that identifies several issues across numerous customer hosts.
The executive report outlines the following:

The client is concerned about the availability of its consumer-facing production application. Which of the following hosts should the penetration tester select for additional manual testing?

A. Server 1
B. Server 3
C. Server 2
D. Server 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
Since the client is worried about the availability of their consumer-facing application, the perimeter network web server (Server 3) is the most critical because:
* It is internet-facing, making it a prime target for attackers.
* A compromise could lead to data breaches, downtime, or service disruptions.
* Even though it has fewer vulnerabilities (14 vs. 92 on QA server), its exposure is higher.
* Option A (Development sandbox server) #: Internal and not publicly accessible.
* Option B (Back-office file transfer server) #: Important, but not consumer-facing.
* Option C (Perimeter web server) #: Correct. Publicly accessible and critical to operations.
* Option D (Developer QA server) #: May have more vulnerabilities, but it's less critical.
# Reference: CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-003 Official Guide - Prioritizing Vulnerability Testing

NEW QUESTION # 214
In a cloud environment, a security team discovers that an attacker accessed confidential information that was used to configure virtual machines during their initialization. Through which of the following features could this information have been accessed?

A. Metadata services
B. Block storage
C. Virtual private cloud
D. IAM

Answer: A

Explanation:
In a cloud environment, the information used to configure virtual machines during their initialization could have been accessed through metadata services.
Metadata Services:
Definition: Cloud service providers offer metadata services that provide information about the running instance, such as instance ID, hostname, network configurations, and user data.
Access: These services are accessible from within the virtual machine and often include sensitive information used during the initialization and configuration of the VM.
Other Features:
IAM (Identity and Access Management): Manages permissions and access to resources but does not directly expose initialization data.
Block Storage: Provides persistent storage but does not directly expose initialization data.
Virtual Private Cloud (VPC): Provides network isolation for cloud resources but does not directly expose initialization data.
Pentest Reference:
Cloud Security: Understanding how metadata services work and the potential risks associated with them is crucial for securing cloud environments.
Exploitation: Metadata services can be exploited to retrieve sensitive data if not properly secured.
By accessing metadata services, an attacker can retrieve sensitive configuration information used during VM initialization, which can lead to further exploitation.

NEW QUESTION # 215
......

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PT0-003–100% FREE VALID EXAM QUESTION | TRUSTABLE COMPTIA PENTEST+ EXAM INSTANT DISCOUNT

PT0-003–100% Free Valid Exam Question | Trustable CompTIA PenTest+ Exam Instant Discount